I was wondering how I could do this question:
If (ad+bc)^{2} <= (a^{2}+b^{2})(c^{2}+d^{2}),
deduce that:
(a+b)^{2}<= 2(a^{2}+b^{2})
Now, I know that I am able to do it without the first property given, but the original question is a HENCE question... so i was wondering how to do it using the property above.
I can let c and d = 1, but I am not sure whether you can replace them with integer values.
A worked out solution will help me lots in easing up confusion with inequalities.
THANKS GUYS!!!
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The given identity has no restrictions on a,b,c,d except that they all must be real. Letting c=1 and d=1 should be correct
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