I was wondering how I could do this question:
If (ad+bc)^{2} <= (a^{2}+b^{2})(c^{2}+d^{2}),
deduce that:
(a+b)^{2}<= 2(a^{2}+b^{2})
Now, I know that I am able to do it without the first property given, but the original question is a HENCE question... so i was wondering how to do it using the property above.
I can let c and d = 1, but I am not sure whether you can replace them with integer values.
A worked out solution will help me lots in easing up confusion with inequalities.
THANKS GUYS!!!
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2016 HSC (Accelerated): // 2U Maths (97) // SOR 1 (48) //
2017 HSC: // English Adv (91) // Bio (96) // Phys (95) // 3U Maths (99) // 4U Maths (97) //
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The given identity has no restrictions on a,b,c,d except that they all must be real. Letting c=1 and d=1 should be correct
2017:
Chemistry (89) - Physics (91) - English (Standard) (87) - Maths Ext 1 (99) - Maths Ext 2 (98)
ATAR - 98.70
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