nonsenseTM
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- 2010
just curious
Last edited:
Quite self explanatory if you look at the diagram.I said I know that one, but thank you anyway cos no body else is replying
lol
That's not really a rigorous proof because you're assuming that the functions u and v are continuous...Using first principles:
The continuity is sort of implied with the fact that the derivative exists for both functions (a requirement for the product rule).That's not really a rigorous proof because you're assuming that the functions u and v are continuous...
thanks a lotThe continuity is sort of implied with the fact that the derivative exists for both functions (a requirement for the product rule).
If the derivative exists at a certain point, that function must clearly be continuous at that point. If at least one of the functions wasn't continuous at a given point then obviously differentiation by the product rule is not well defined for that point.
There is no such 'proof' that weakens the assumptions of continuity or differentiability simply because the derivative wouldn't be defined at discontunities and non-differentiable points hence it obvious that you can't prove the product rule under such circumstances.