Hey Everyone,
Lately I've been hearing alot that it is incorrect to say that the P-N junction uses the photoelectric effect. This is because the photoelectric effect (to what I know) is the complete removal of the binding energy of the atom to its electron and this electron has been liberated from the lattice completely. In the P-N junction, this is not the case, it is merely given energy and moves due to the electric field cause by the P-N junction.
I also heard that the marker's mentioned in one of the HSC comments that this is no longer the photoelectric effect and it is incorrect if you write so. (Apparently its the photovoltaic effect or something)
Can someone clear this up?
Cheers
Lately I've been hearing alot that it is incorrect to say that the P-N junction uses the photoelectric effect. This is because the photoelectric effect (to what I know) is the complete removal of the binding energy of the atom to its electron and this electron has been liberated from the lattice completely. In the P-N junction, this is not the case, it is merely given energy and moves due to the electric field cause by the P-N junction.
I also heard that the marker's mentioned in one of the HSC comments that this is no longer the photoelectric effect and it is incorrect if you write so. (Apparently its the photovoltaic effect or something)
Can someone clear this up?
Cheers
