I've just made up a question. it's quite easy though.
a) Prove by induction or otherwise:
[a1+a2+...+an]/n > (a1a2...an)^(1/n)
b) Hence or otherwise, prove that (1-e)^-n=n^n.e^(n/2)(1-n) for n large where n E Z+
HINT: Replace a1,a2,...,an by 1,e,e^2,...,e^n