Please explain this Q to me :) (1 Viewer)

LoveHateSchool

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So I have to evaluate integral of secx with limits pi/3 and pi/6.

Already shown these derivatives.
secx=secxtanx
secx + tanx=secx (secx + tan x)

Where to from here?
 

SpiralFlex

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Notice that the derivative of the bottom is the top. So it's a natural logarithm! That is,













Rationalise at your peril
 
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LoveHateSchool

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Notice that the derivative of the bottom is the top. So it's a natural logarithm! That is,













Rationalise at your peril
Thank you so much robot, can you help to explain to me in first line why I times secx by secx + tanx/secx + tanx, is it just to enable integration, as it doesn't change it because you are really multiplying it be one?
But I can follow the rest from there :)
 

SpiralFlex

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A great Mathematician once told me "By doing nothing, you're doing something"

Ie.



We effectively multiplied it by one to change nothing, but if we write 1 a different way, say



We can change it's form,



But this is the same number, so we effectively done nothing but we have change its looks.

I times all sides by sec x + tan x/sec x + tan x to enable integration yes, since we need to use the result from the previous question. Hence by doing this, I have on the numerator,

sec x(sec + tan x), which is the result you have provided.
 

LoveHateSchool

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Thank you so much Spi, the question is good once I realise how you can change it's form, and now I get it :) Thank you so much, it totally clicks now!
 

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