Lear question (1 Viewer)

[Piddlepot]

"It is through his sufferings that Lear comes to a self discovery: the final effect of the play is affirmative"

Now I understand that it wants me to analyse Lears plight and throw in some storm scenes and his madness but what does the second bit of the statement mean.

Does it want me to comment on Cordelia's death as a justification or what?

 

[Gregor Samsa]

Put simply, its stating that King Lear ends in an upbeat fashion, following Lear's 'redemption'. I personally believe the ending is both upbeat and depressing.

 

[Piddlepot]

Yeah i thought something along those lines, but i am confused when it says 'final effect'. Does it mean impact on audience or the death of Cordelia?

 

[Gregor Samsa]

The 'final effect' is referring to the audience, but the death of Cordelia is an important aspect of the conclusion. Good luck.