Just to clarify on those previous comments... the existence of the tort itself gives rise to a right of action.
A tortious act on the part of the defendant then allows the plaintiff to pursue that right of action.
I've been trying to think of an analogy... the tort creates a (closed) doorway, which is a right of action in potentio. The tortious act opens the doorway, allowing the right of claim to pass through. Where there is no tort, it doesn't matter whether the doorway is open or closed, because there's no doorway to begin with - and hence no right of action (under tort law).