I have a short answer assesment at the moment and one of the questions is..."Why is the distribution of wealth less equal than the distribution of income?" I have talked about the notion of inheretance and that wealth is not taxed but i hear there is some theory that applies to this. Does anyone know of this theory or anything else that may help me in answering this question?
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Distribution of Wealth? (1 Viewer)
- Thread starter rara
- Start date
Ok here are the disparity stats between the two:
Income Inequality
top 20% earn. $903/week, 38.5% of total income
bottom 20% earn $180 per week, 7.6% of income
Wealth Distribution
top 20% of the population pwn 65% of the wealth
bottom 20% of the population have ZERO wealth
wealth gini co-efficient constant at 0.64
Income Inequality
top 20% earn. $903/week, 38.5% of total income
bottom 20% earn $180 per week, 7.6% of income
Wealth Distribution
top 20% of the population pwn 65% of the wealth
bottom 20% of the population have ZERO wealth
wealth gini co-efficient constant at 0.64
well...this isnt the right answer but heres some random shit anyway
ppl with high incomes can afford to buy like investment properties and nice lambos and ferraris and shit this is why they have a huge wealth...coz they can afford it....poor ppl on the otherhand cant afford this coz they are buying necessities and the odd drug here and there...buying food would not increase wealth...
well fill in the blanks...im too sleepy to keep going coz its prolly wrong anyway
ppl with high incomes can afford to buy like investment properties and nice lambos and ferraris and shit this is why they have a huge wealth...coz they can afford it....poor ppl on the otherhand cant afford this coz they are buying necessities and the odd drug here and there...buying food would not increase wealth...
well fill in the blanks...im too sleepy to keep going coz its prolly wrong anyway