S spyris New Member Joined Feb 9, 2013 Messages 23 Gender Male HSC 2013 Sep 22, 2013 #1 Hi, I heard somewhere that 1/z = z(bar) but im not sure if its true because i am unable to prove it...so is it true and if so how do i show it. THanks
Hi, I heard somewhere that 1/z = z(bar) but im not sure if its true because i am unable to prove it...so is it true and if so how do i show it. THanks
HSC2014 Member Joined Jul 30, 2012 Messages 399 Gender Male HSC N/A Sep 22, 2013 #2 It does not You can quickly obtain the complex number that is 1/z where z = x + iy by rationalising the denominator and you'll see it comes out NOT to be z|
It does not You can quickly obtain the complex number that is 1/z where z = x + iy by rationalising the denominator and you'll see it comes out NOT to be z|
F funnytomato Active Member Joined Jan 21, 2011 Messages 847 Gender Male HSC 2010 Sep 22, 2013 #3 in general, no but if |z|= 1 then z= cis theta, and 1/z= cis 0 / cis theta = cis (-theta)= z bar
B braintic Well-Known Member Joined Jan 20, 2011 Messages 2,137 Gender Undisclosed HSC N/A Sep 22, 2013 #4 Adding to funnytomato's comment, it is useful result in some questions concerning roots of UNITY. But ONLY unity. A more general result is 1/z = (z bar) / |z|
Adding to funnytomato's comment, it is useful result in some questions concerning roots of UNITY. But ONLY unity. A more general result is 1/z = (z bar) / |z|