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Induction (1 Viewer)

Thread starter =)(=
Start date Feb 15, 2023

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=)(=

Active Member

#1

is there anything wrong with my working?

M

member 6003

Member

#2

Yes it should be correct. I would just prove that -1/(k+1) + 1/(k+1)^2 >= -1/(k+2) but it might be slightly longer.

M

member 6003

Member

#3

this question is also kind of weird / its derivative of LHS>=RHS= 2 - 1/n which I think is a more well known inequality.

C

carrotsss

New Member

#4

Nitpicky but you should really use brackets around k+2 in the third last fraction

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