lyounamu
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(ii) Use mathematical induction to prove that, for all integers [FONT=EDLGK F+ Times,Times]n ≥[/FONT]1, tanθ tan 2θ+tan 2θ tan 3θ+[FONT=EDLGL I+ MT] +[/FONT]tan [FONT=EDLGK F+ Times,Times]nθ [/FONT]tan([FONT=EDLGK F+ Times,Times]n +[/FONT]1)θ=−([FONT=EDLGK F+ Times,Times]n +[/FONT]1))+cotθ tan([FONT=EDLGK F+ Times,Times]n +[/FONT]1)θ.
Thi question is ridiculous in my opinion.
You can not even prove that when n=1, the both side of the equation satisfies.
So, I missed the first step and went onto the 2nd and 3rd steps and solved it. But I don't know how to prove that the equation is correct when n = 1. (i.e. LHS = RHS)
Thi question is ridiculous in my opinion.
You can not even prove that when n=1, the both side of the equation satisfies.
So, I missed the first step and went onto the 2nd and 3rd steps and solved it. But I don't know how to prove that the equation is correct when n = 1. (i.e. LHS = RHS)