kpq_sniper017
Member
- Joined
- Dec 18, 2003
- Messages
- 672
Something came to my head as I was doing some inverse trig. function questions:
Suppose:
f(x) = x<sup>2</sup>(1 + 1/x<sup>2</sup>)
then f(x) is undefined for x=0.
But then expand f(x), then:
f(x) = x<sup>2</sup> + 1
which is defined for all real x.
???
Can someone please explain this to me?
Am I missing the obvious somewhere?
Suppose:
f(x) = x<sup>2</sup>(1 + 1/x<sup>2</sup>)
then f(x) is undefined for x=0.
But then expand f(x), then:
f(x) = x<sup>2</sup> + 1
which is defined for all real x.
???
Can someone please explain this to me?
Am I missing the obvious somewhere?