Why does equity override common law? (1 Viewer)

michbrown_933 · Feb 26, 2010

[FONT=&quot]Does anyone know the answer to this

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Why does equity override common law? <o></o>

thanks

imnotwallace · Mar 2, 2010

It just does. It was designed to override common law since some people with enough power didn't think common law outcomes were fair.

TheNose · May 6, 2010

yeah dude, i think the whole idea of equity law is that it's flexible and judges can use thier own discretion, so it has to override common law or else it wouldn't have any point even existing

holofernes · Jun 5, 2010

I hate to revive an old thread but ...

The conflict was resolved in the Earl of Oxford's case in 1615. A judgement in the Court of Common Pleas was supposedly obtained by fraud and the Lord Chancellor issued an injunction to restrain its execution. Their struggle was referred to the Attorney General of the day, Sir Francis Bacon, and to the King (James I). They decided that when in conflict, equity should prevail.

This is also repeated in the Judicature Acts of the late 19th century, and in NSW, the Law Reform (Law and Equity) Act 1970.

Why does equity override common law? (1 Viewer)

michbrown_933

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imnotwallace

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TheNose

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