IAU001
Member
- Joined
- Dec 23, 2006
- Messages
- 47
- Gender
- Male
- HSC
- 2009
this could potentially be a stupid question but how do i prove ththe following using the pinching theorem? this question is from the Limits chapter in the course notes for MATH1131 & 1141:
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white %5Clim_%7Bx%5Cto%200%7D%20%5Cfrac%20%7Bsin%20%5Ctheta%7D%7B%5Ctheta%7D%20=%201)
there was only one example in the course notes, and using the same method I did this:
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white -1%20%5Cleq%20sin%20%5Ctheta%20%5Cleq%201)
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white where...%5Ctheta%20%3E%200)
but i can't use the pinching theorem because the limits limits of -1/theta and 1/theta is minus infinity and infinity respectively.
any help appreciated!![Smile :) :)](data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///yH5BAEAAAAALAAAAAABAAEAAAIBRAA7)
there was only one example in the course notes, and using the same method I did this:
but i can't use the pinching theorem because the limits limits of -1/theta and 1/theta is minus infinity and infinity respectively.
any help appreciated!