Re: Several Variable Calculus
\text{Bit confused. How is it possible for }\lim_{x\to 0}\lim_{y\to 0}f(x,y)\\ \text{and the reverse order of limiting to not exist}
\text{but then }\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}f(x,y)\text{ exists}\\ \text{for }f(x,y)=(x+y)\sin \frac1x \sin \frac1y