Slightly unrelated, but ohexploitable, is your avatar from Gossip Girl?
Also, as we have an absence of questions:
If In = (Integral from 1 to 0) x^n tan(inverse)x dx, n = 0, 1, 2, ...
Show that In = 1/(n+1) * π/2 - 1/[n(n+1)] - (n-1)/(n+1) * I(n-2), n = 2, 3, 4, ...
Sorry, don't know latex