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A challenge! (1 Viewer)

CM_Tutor

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Xayma said:
If you can remember that F<sub>n</sub> equals the nearest integer to &phi;<sup>n</sup>/&radic;5, where &phi; is the golden ratio (1/2 (1+&radic;5)) of course you probably wont remember it, but if you do it works well cause you then only have to change one number (the power) while having it on 0 dp.
Do you know why this works?
 

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Xayma said:
The golden ratio is a cool number, &phi;<sup>2</sup>=&phi;+1, 1/&phi;=&phi;-1, as fibbonachi numbers get higher, F<sub>n</sub>/F<sub>n-1</sub> approaches &phi;, and lots of cool other things :)
Proving this would make a good (hard) 4u question.
 

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CM_Tutor said:
Do you know why this works?
No, Ive known that formula for a few years so finding out how it works wasnt really a top pirority when I first saw it (when I was about 12). Hmm would be interested to know why it does work though. I would never put that I was using it in an exam, I would just put it in the calculator to speed it up.

CM_Tutor said:
Proving this would make a good (hard) 4u question.
Got down to the fractional equivalent of &phi;, got no idea how to prove that it is equal to (1+&radic;5)/2
 
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CM_Tutor

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Here is a 4u induction question:

With the Fibonacci Numbers defined in the usual way (ie. F<sub>1</sub> = 1, F<sub>2</sub> = 1 and F<sub>n</sub> = F<sub>n-1</sub> + F<sub>n-2</sub> for n &ge; 3),

(a) Prove by induction that F<sub>n</sub> = (1 / &radic;5) * {[(1 + &radic;5) / 2]<sup>n</sup> - [(1 - &radic;5) / 2]<sup>n</sup>} for integers n &ge; 1

(b) Hence, or otherwise, show that as n --> &infin;, F<sub>n+1</sub> / F<sub>n</sub> ---> &phi;, where &phi; = (1 + &radic;5) / 2

Xayma - you should be able to explain your approximation method using part (a) as well.

Now, here is a question with a more formal proof that F<sub>n+1</sub> / F<sub>n</sub> ---> &phi;:

Let &phi; = (1 + &radic;5) / 2, and define the Fibonacci numbers as above, and define R<sub>n</sub> as F<sub>n+1</sub> / F<sub>n</sub>

(a) Show that if &phi; < R<sub>n</sub> < &phi; + &epsilon;, where &epsilon; &le; 1 / 2, then &phi; - &epsilon; / 2 < R<sub>n+1</sub> < &phi;

(b) Show that if &phi; - &epsilon; < R<sub>n</sub> < &phi;, where &epsilon; &le; 1 / 2, then &phi; < R<sub>n+1</sub> < &phi; + &epsilon; / 2

(c) Hence, show that |R<sub>n</sub> - &phi;| < 1 / 2<sup>n</sup>

(d) Explain why F<sub>n+1</sub> / F<sub>n</sub> ---> &phi; as n --> &infin;
 

Xayma

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Bah phooey to those, I prefer lim (n-->&infin;.) F<sub>n+1</sub>/F<sub>n</sub> --> (via continually expanding and dividing) 1+1/(1+1/[1+1/{1+1/(........ which is = to &phi; (although I dont know how to prove that last bit)

Anyway to part a) I understand that it becomes (&phi;<sup>n</sup>/&radic;5)*-[(1-&radic;5)/2]<sup>n</sup>/&radic;5 but I dont know how *-[(1-&radic;5)/2]<sup>n</sup>/&radic;5 transforms it into the nint function.
 
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