hi all,
i'm a bit confused on the collision theory reasoning behind dilution effect in regards to Le Chatelier's principle:
let's say for this e.g.
(4:1 aq molar ratio)
![1688386743937.png](/data/attachments/38/38793-4593d23a6f53a7808c51d22ca47899ac.jpg)
initially all species conc decreases (becaused diluted), then the side with more aqueous moles is favoured. I don't get why the side with more aq moles is favoured (if someone could please explain using collision theory)
i'm a bit confused on the collision theory reasoning behind dilution effect in regards to Le Chatelier's principle:
let's say for this e.g.
![1688386710171.png](/data/attachments/38/38792-f6c6e834b23d2ce18b9e8e10f224defa.jpg)
![1688386743937.png](/data/attachments/38/38793-4593d23a6f53a7808c51d22ca47899ac.jpg)
initially all species conc decreases (becaused diluted), then the side with more aqueous moles is favoured. I don't get why the side with more aq moles is favoured (if someone could please explain using collision theory)