Hey guys I need some help as this doesn't make sense to me:
How come CAD as a percentage of GDP is 6% when foreign liabilities is 63% of GDP...how can it be more than the CAD??
Is it because the actual loan (minus the servicing costs) is recorded in the Captial and Financial Account?? But I thought the K & F A was always in surplus??
I'm so confused right now....
Please help..
How come CAD as a percentage of GDP is 6% when foreign liabilities is 63% of GDP...how can it be more than the CAD??
Is it because the actual loan (minus the servicing costs) is recorded in the Captial and Financial Account?? But I thought the K & F A was always in surplus??
I'm so confused right now....
Please help..