Kurosaki
True Fail Kid
Hello, I'd like to request some assistance with understanding a worked example from Terry Lee's Fundamental Maths.
Find the number of ways you can arrange A, A, B, B, C, C such that no two identical letters are together.
What he did was calculate total number of ways- 90.
then he calculated:
- ways with 1 pair=90
- ways with 2 pairs= 36
- ways with 3 pairs=6
Then he did 90-(36-6)=60 to find the total number of ways with at least 1 pair.
I'm a bit confused with this leap of logic however.
I understand that there is a bit of overcounting with 2 pairs - obviously we can't have all the arrangements equal to the ones with at least 1 pair, but I'm not sure how to visualise it.
Could someone see if my thought process is correct?
For arrangements with one pair, clearly this also includes 2 pairs and 3 pairs.
Similarly, arrangements with 2 pairs also include 3 pairs.
since the number of arrangements with 3 pairs is 6, then the arrangements with 2 pairs is 36-6=30.
Then we consider an arrangement such as CAABBC, which I think would be double-counted - counted in both the scenarios where, for a single pair, A and B are chosen to be in pairs?
Does the problem of double-counting with arrangements such as CAABBC occur here, and hence that's why we subtract the number of ways for only 2 pairs to occur?
If someone could offer a more intuitive/better explanation, that would also be greatly appreciated , I'm not quite sure of my logic, it feels like I'm fumbling and too contrived haha.
Edit: Actually, could whoever responds to this just explain this from scratch please?
Find the number of ways you can arrange A, A, B, B, C, C such that no two identical letters are together.
What he did was calculate total number of ways- 90.
then he calculated:
- ways with 1 pair=90
- ways with 2 pairs= 36
- ways with 3 pairs=6
Then he did 90-(36-6)=60 to find the total number of ways with at least 1 pair.
I'm a bit confused with this leap of logic however.
I understand that there is a bit of overcounting with 2 pairs - obviously we can't have all the arrangements equal to the ones with at least 1 pair, but I'm not sure how to visualise it.
Could someone see if my thought process is correct?
For arrangements with one pair, clearly this also includes 2 pairs and 3 pairs.
Similarly, arrangements with 2 pairs also include 3 pairs.
since the number of arrangements with 3 pairs is 6, then the arrangements with 2 pairs is 36-6=30.
Then we consider an arrangement such as CAABBC, which I think would be double-counted - counted in both the scenarios where, for a single pair, A and B are chosen to be in pairs?
Does the problem of double-counting with arrangements such as CAABBC occur here, and hence that's why we subtract the number of ways for only 2 pairs to occur?
If someone could offer a more intuitive/better explanation, that would also be greatly appreciated , I'm not quite sure of my logic, it feels like I'm fumbling and too contrived haha.
Edit: Actually, could whoever responds to this just explain this from scratch please?
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