chilli 412
oo la la
- Joined
- Apr 13, 2022
- Messages
- 253
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- Male
- HSC
- 2023
Prove by MI that for all int. n >= 1 , !}=1-\frac{1}{(n+1)!})
Hi, i'm able to prove this but I had to change my approach. I'm still confused as to how my first approach wasnt working
For my 1st approach, I was left with LHS =!}+\frac{k+1}{(k+2)!})
from there, i didnt touch the ' 1 - ' because i knew it would show up on the RHS, and opted to get a common denominator between the two fractions instead. In doing so, I am left with LHS =!})
but this obviously doesnt work, as my right hand side should have a '1' in place of the '2k+3' i am left with. I don't understand where this has gone wrong
Hi, i'm able to prove this but I had to change my approach. I'm still confused as to how my first approach wasnt working
For my 1st approach, I was left with LHS =
from there, i didnt touch the ' 1 - ' because i knew it would show up on the RHS, and opted to get a common denominator between the two fractions instead. In doing so, I am left with LHS =
but this obviously doesnt work, as my right hand side should have a '1' in place of the '2k+3' i am left with. I don't understand where this has gone wrong