mathsbrain
Member
- Joined
- Jul 16, 2012
- Messages
- 161
- Gender
- Male
- HSC
- N/A
Given I_n=\int_{e^-1}^{1} (1+lnx)^n dx = 1-n(I_(n-1)) and J_n=\int_{e^-1}^{1} (lnx)(1+lnx)^n dx for n=0,1,2,3,...
show that J_n=1-(n+2)I_n for n=0,1,2,3,...
Sorry for my sloppy latex input
PS: is there a way to input latex on this forum?
show that J_n=1-(n+2)I_n for n=0,1,2,3,...
Sorry for my sloppy latex input
PS: is there a way to input latex on this forum?
Last edited: