Would it be valid to say that since there were
heads in
tosses, each toss has on average an
chance to be heads?
If we consider a situation where for
every n tosses, we get exactly r heads, then we can calculate
,
which I believe is exactly what you're saying. So yes, you are right.
The question is worded in a way that suggests the interpretation that we are only considering the cases where we obtain exactly r heads, which is why you can think of it as if that's the only possibility each and every time we toss a coin n times.