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Ragerunner

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find the first and second derivatives of y=x^1/3. describe the behaviour of the curve near the origin and decide if this can be described as a point of inflexion

thanks. i got no idea :(
 

Calculon

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y'= 1/ 3x<sup>2/3</sup>
y''=-2/ 9x<sup>5/3</sup>

then just work out stationary pts etc and sketch it
 

Ragerunner

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hmm...can you sketch the curve, i still don't seem to get it right..
 

Xayma

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Reflect y=x<sup>3</sup> around y=x, to get the curve.
 

martin310015

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star it can be a inflexion point using the second derivative test there is a change in concavity.It is underfined because u can't have a vertical tangent so its still continious.as there is a solution when u sub in x=0 in the original equation
 

CM_Tutor

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At the origin, the tangent is the y-axis (x = 0) - you can have a vertical tangent, it's just that its slope is undefined. The point (0, 0) is a vertical point of inflection.
 

Grey Council

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hehe, curious, nie? vertical point of inflection. :)

Mostly you'll only ever find inflections, a few horizontal points of inflection, and nearly never vertical points of inflection.

Out of curiousity, how do you prove a vertical point of inflection? I mean, inflection if y''=0
horizontal inflection if y'=0 AND y''=0
vertical inflection?
 

Xayma

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Originally posted by Grey Council
Out of curiousity, how do you prove a vertical point of inflection? I mean, inflection if y''=0
horizontal inflection if y'=0 AND y''=0
vertical inflection?
And you check left and right for a change in concavity.
 

CM_Tutor

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Inflection if y'' = 0 and y'' changes sign - ie. change in concavity as Xayma said.

Horizontal inflection if y'' = 0 and y' = 0 and y'' changes sign - be carfeful with this one, you still need the change in sign. For example, y = x^3 has a horizontal poi at the origin, y = x^4 has a minimum tp at the origin, but both have y'' = 0 and y' = 0.

Vertical inflection is more difficult to demonstrate - my first attempt at writing a definition had a few holes (like for absolute value graphs), so after thinking, here is my approach:

- There must be a vertical tangent at the point in question.
- y'' must change change sign
- y'' will usually be undefined - I can't think of a case off hand where y'' = 0, but I won't exclude the possibility without further thought. (Anyone else have a view on this?). y'' certainly CANNOT be anything else (ie. couldn't have y'' = 5 (say), but then that is obvious as this would prevent y'' changing sign, so long as y'' is continuous).

Now, there will be a vertical tangent at some point x = a if y is defined when x = a, y' is undefined when x = a, and the limits as x approaches a from BOTH above and below show that y' goes to positive or negative infinity.

In the above example, y = x^1/3, we know y' = x^(-2/3) / 3.
At (0, 0), y' is undefined (its 1 / (3 * 0).
As x ---> 0+, x^2/3 ---> 0+, so y' ---> 1 / (3 * 0+) ---> + inf
As x ---> 0-, x^2/3 ---> 0-, so y' ---> 1 / (3 * 0-) ---> - inf
Thus, we have a vertical tangent at (0, 0).
Further, y'' is undefined, but also changes sign at (0, 0). Thus my conclusion that (0, 0) is a vertical point of inflection.

(Note: there is a much easier way to do this. As Xyama said above, this graph is the reflection of y = x^3 in the line y = x. That is, it is the inverse function of y = x^3. Thus, the horizontal poi at (0, 0) of y = x^3 becomes a vertical poi of y = x^1/3.)

To recognise the importance of there being a vertical tangent, consider the graph of y = |x^2 - 1|. y'' is undefined at (1, 0), and does change signs. y' is also undefined at (1, 0). However, there is no vertical tangent (in fact, there is no tangent at all) because as x approaches 1 from above, y' approaches 2, and as x approaches 1 from below, y' approaches -2. Thus (1, 0) is not a point of inflection.
 
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Xayma

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So if it has an easy inverse function, could you prove it has a horizontal point of inflexion and then reflect it or would you need to prove that it is reflected around y=x
 

CM_Tutor

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If it has an easy inverse, then yes, you could show a horizontal poi on the inverse at (a, b), and then state that the original function must have a vertical poi at (b, a). You would, of course, need to prove that the functions in question are inverses of one another, and would need also need to properly demonstrate the horizontal poi of the inverse.
 

Xayma

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Actually speaking on it. If it is easy (*prays there isnt a difficult one) ie you can make x the subject without too much trouble. If x'=0 and x''=0 and x'' changes signs would that prove a vertical point of inflection (since it works the same way as an inverse function).
 

CM_Tutor

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You're right, but this is basically the same as using the iverse function. After all, by making x the subject, you are finding the inverse, and then not bothering to swap y and x.
 

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