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CrashOveride

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for the STANSW question , since the rod is always at right angles to the magnetic field, then from the sin@ in the magnetic flux equation (flux=BAsin@) there is always a max magnetic flux? and how i learnt EMF was to take the -ve derivative (so we are looking for negative gradient) of the magnetic flux curve..since magnetic flux is always at a max... derivative is zero.. ??

The question can be found here:
http://www.boredofstudies.org/community/showthread.php?t=47506&page=1&pp=15

It's untitiled picture 1.
 

1800-gumby

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i don't know if your just using this as an example for a harder question but arent you going into too much detail for this question? as u said it is always at right angles to the filed so the magnetic flux is contantly a maximum so its going to be answer d. But personally id just use the right hand rule cause i find it heaps simpler.
 

CrashOveride

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but the graphs are of EMF, so if magnetic flux is constantly a maximum then the EMF would be constant zero.

Drop a comment anyone ^^
 

helper

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I hate Induced currents so have been hoping to avoid this and someone else will answer. But you are persistent

The bar is sweeping out an area so there iis an induced EMF. If it was a circular disc the the emf would be zero.
The size of the EMF would be constant because the rate of movement is constant so the change in flux is constant.
 

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