They mistook it as a general thread for everyone to post their Q's in I think.Why is everyone infesting my cry-for-help thread.
They mistook it as a general thread for everyone to post their Q's in I think.Why is everyone infesting my cry-for-help thread.
I realised actually. Though I would've hoped that with the earlier posts by Speed and Drsoccerball people would've realised.They mistook it as a general thread for everyone to post their Q's in I think.
They probably didn't read through the whole thread carefully.I realised actually. Though I would've hoped that with the earlier posts by Speed and Drsoccerball people would've realised.
Nop, this is basically the confessions forum for maths.I realised actually. Though I would've hoped that with the earlier posts by Speed and Drsoccerball people would've realised.
Right, the first part makes sense. But I got lost here:Comes from the absolute homogeneity of norms.
So:
1. Yes, this is a pretty common convention. Another one is to denote the coordinate vector whose only nonzero entry is it's i-th one, which is equal to 1.More general questions please
This is mainly cause so far I've only read one textbook.
BecauseRight, the first part makes sense. But I got lost here:
Oh I'm so silly. Thanks!Because
noting that taking the modulus does not change a positive number, and also using the fact that alpha is positive by assumption.
Or to put it more succinctly, no even function can possibly have a complete inverse.
How do I prove that log base 2 to the power of 3 is irrational ? Can u go step by step in the method?
Thankyou