why is is true that the integral [(sin@)^8-(cos@)^8]of from 0 to pi/2 with respect to @ = 0
MC Squidge BOS' Apex Predator Joined May 13, 2008 Messages 267 Location none Gender Male HSC 2009 May 17, 2009 #1 why is is true that the integral [(sin@)^8-(cos@)^8]of from 0 to pi/2 with respect to @ = 0
Trebla Administrator Administrator Joined Feb 16, 2005 Messages 8,393 Gender Male HSC 2006 May 17, 2009 #2
GUSSSSSSSSSSSSS Active Member Joined Aug 20, 2008 Messages 1,102 Location Turra Gender Male HSC 2009 May 17, 2009 #3 well i cbb doin the question but it wud be cos that funcion has rotational symetry about the line x = pi/4 so the areas on either side of the x axis cancel out =S (btw im just assuming this i havnt actually drawn the function)
well i cbb doin the question but it wud be cos that funcion has rotational symetry about the line x = pi/4 so the areas on either side of the x axis cancel out =S (btw im just assuming this i havnt actually drawn the function)
MC Squidge BOS' Apex Predator Joined May 13, 2008 Messages 267 Location none Gender Male HSC 2009 May 17, 2009 #4 thanks trebla